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Here's a question by a reader named Seldon:
"Do you have any references to support
the idea that God the Father was once a man? Also how can you reconcile
this idea with the Old Testament scriptures that only one God exists (as
found in the book Of Isaiah) Finally do you think the Church teaches the
existence of an infinite series of gods. thanks"
I'll break your query up into two parts:
Question 1: Can there be other Gods?
Answer 1: In answer to this question, Mormons usually refer to 1 Cor.
8:5-6, where Paul says there are "gods many, and lords many,"
but "to us" there is only "one God, the Father" and
"one Lord, Jesus Christ." Mainstream Christians usually say this
refers to false gods, but Paul clearly referred to those that are "called
gods", as well as beings who "are" gods. Origen (ca. 250
A.D.) said that indeed, Christians regarded this passage as referring to
real gods, specifically men who had been deified:
"Now it is possible that some may dislike what we have said
representing the Father as the one true God, but admitting other beings
besides the true God, who have become gods by having a share of God. They
may fear that the glory of Him who surpasses all creation may be lowered
to the level of those other beings called gods. We drew this distinction
between Him and them that we showed God the Word to be to all the other
gods the minister of their divinity.... As, then, there are many gods,
but to us there is but one God the Father, and many Lords, but to us there
is one Lord, Jesus Christ...." [Origen, Commentary on John 2:3,
in ANF 10:323.]
Mormons expand this principle to include Gods who may have gone before
the being who is the "one God" to us. In any case, it is clear
that this does not negate the OT (and NT) teaching that there is "one
God," because "to us" this is true.
Question 2: Did any early Christians teach that
God was once a man, or that there could be a god above our God?
Answer 2: I've never found any statements to this effect in any early
Christian literature. This can be explained in two ways:
1) This principle may not have been revealed to the early Church. It
must be remembered that Joseph Smith preached that "things that have
not been before revealed" would be known in this dispensation. [Smith,
ed., Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, p. 345.] In any case, we can
find every other element of Joseph Smith's doctrine of God which leads
up to this. I showed in the article you read that the earliest Christians
believed in an anthropomorphic God who is "one" with the other
members of the Godhead in the context of will and love, creation out of
chaotic matter, pre-existent souls, and deification. It's just one more
step to the conclusion that God was once a man, and may have a god above
Him.
2) This principle was revealed to the apostles, but was lost shortly
after they left the scene. I find this one most likely because during the
second century the God of the Greek philosophers was rapidly replacing
the anthropomorphic God of the earliest Christians. Consider the reaction
Paul got when he preached the resurrection of Christ to the Greek intellectuals
at Mars Hill in Athens - they laughed their heads off because the idea
of a God who would have anything to do with the material world was absolutely
crass to them. Accordingly, as Christians adopted a more Greek conception
of God, the idea of God having once been a man would have been dropped
quite quickly. I've found one piece of evidence from the writings of the
early Fathers to indicate that this might have been the case. Irenaeus
of Lyons (ca. 180 A.D.) said that Christians shouldn't argue about whether
there is a God above God, because it would be speculation:
"The Father, therefore, has been declared by our Lord to excel
with respect to knowledge; for this reason, that we, too, as long as we
are connected with the scheme of things in this world, should leave perfect
knowledge, and such questions [as have been mentioned], to God, and should
not by any chance, while we seek to investigate the sublime nature of the
Father, fall into the danger of starting the question whether there is
another God above God." [Irenaeus, Against Heresies 2:27:8, in
ANF 1:402.]
From this statement of Irenaeus, we may conclude that 1) there were
some Christians who DID believe there was a God above God, and 2) the idea
of it wasn't totally antithetical to Irenaeus' conception of God - he just
didn't think it was proper to speculate about such things. This last point
is important because it illustrates the fact that the concept of God radically
changed over the first few Christian centuries. If you asked either the
later fathers or modern mainstream Christians whether there could be a
God above God, they would say, "NO!!!!" They would never EVER,
say, "We shouldn't speculate about such things."
Hope this helps!
Barry
P.S. You asked whether the Church teaches that there is "an infinite
series of Gods." I think you could definitely interpret it that way,
but I believe the teachings in this area are a little vague, since they
are on the "frontier" of our revealed knowledge.
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